Friday, 9 December 2016

ACC 403 Final Exam 1 Chp. 9-13-New

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1.    If an auditor believes the chance of financial failure is high and there is a corresponding increase in business risk for the auditor, acceptable audit risk would likely:
2.    The preliminary judgment about materiality and the amount of audit evidence accumulated are ________ related.
3.    Auditors generally allocate the preliminary judgment about materiality to the:
4.    Auditors are ________ to document the known and likely misstatements in the financial statements under audit.
5.    An auditor who audits a business cycle that has low inherent risk should:
6.    When one material weakness is present at the end of the year, management of a public company must conclude that internal control over financial reporting is:
7.    An audit procedure that would most likely be used by an auditor in performing tests of control procedures in which the segregation of functions and that leaves no "audit" trail is:
8.    Which of the following is responsible for establishing a private company's internal control?
9.    Internal controls normally include procedures designed to provide reasonable assurance that:
10.  Internal controls:
11.  Financial statement manipulation risk is arguably present for all companies' financial statements. However, the risk is elevated for companies that:
12.  Which of the following is not a factor that relates to opportunities to misappropriate assets?
13.  Two of the most useful warning signals that can indicate that revenue fraud is occurring are:
14.  In the fraud triangle, fraudulent financial reporting and misappropriation of assets:
15.  Which of the following is a factor that relates to incentives to misappropriate assets?
16.  The audit approach in which the auditor runs his or her own program on a controlled basis to verify the client's data recorded in a machine language is:
17.  Auditors should evaluate which of the following before evaluating application controls because of the potential for pervasive effects?
18.  Which of the following is a component of general controls?
19.  General controls may include firewalls which are used to protect from:
20.  An internal control deficiency occurs when computer personnel:
21.  Analytical procedures:
22.  In the context of an audit of financial statements, substantive tests are audit procedures that:
23.  A system walkthrough is primarily used to help the auditor:
24.  Which of the following audit tests is usually the least costly to perform?
25.  Presentation and disclosure related audit objectives would be performed in which phase of the audit process?


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ACC 401 Final Exam Part 2-New

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1.    When a business becomes insolvent, it generally has three possible courses of action. Which of the following is not one of the three possible courses of action?
2.    When a bankruptcy court enters an “order for relief” it has:
3.    The duties of the trustee include:
4.    An involuntary petition filed by a firm’s creditors whereby there are twelve or more creditors must be signed by at least:
5.    The amount of a long-lived asset impairment loss is generally determined by comparing
6.    Which statement below concerning the accountability and funding of the IASC Foundation is correct?
7.    SFAS No.162, the Accounting Standards Codification, is directed to
8.    In accounting for liabilities, IFRS interprets “probable” as
9.    A transaction gain or loss is reported currently in the determination of income if the purpose of the forward contract is to:
10.  The forward exchange rate quoted for the remaining term of a forward contract is used to account for the contract when the forward contract:
11.  A discount or premium on a forward contract is deferred and included in the measurement of the related foreign currency transaction if the contract is classified as a:
12.  The discount or premium on a forward contract entered into as a hedge of an exposed asset or liability position should be:
13.  The exchange rate quoted for future delivery of foreign currency is the definition of a(n):
14.  Under the temporal method, monetary assets and liabilities are translated by using the exchange rate existing at the:
15.  The objective of remeasurement is to:
16.  Which of the following would be restated using the current exchange rate under the temporal method?
17.  Average exchange rates are used to translate certain items from foreign financial statements into U.S. dollars. Such averages are used in order to:
18.  An entity is permitted to aggregate operating segments that have similar economic characteristics under certain circumstances. Which of the following circumstances would allow aggregation of a Entity A into Segment B?
19.  Current authoritative pronouncements require the disclosure of segment information when certain criteria are met. Which of the following reflects the type of firm and type of financial statement for which this disclosure is required?
20.  An enterprise determines that it must report segment data in annual reports for the year ended December 31, 2014. Which of the following would not be an acceptable way of reporting segment information?
21.  In January 2014, Cain Company paid $200,000 in property taxes on its plant for the calendar year 2014. Also in January 2014, Cain estimated that its year-end bonuses to executives for 2014 would be $800,000. What is the amount of expenses related to these two items that should be reflected in Cain's quarterly income statement for the three months ended June 30, 2014 (second quarter)?
22.  Pale Company has four manufacturing divisions, each of which has been determined to be a reportable segment. Common operating costs are appropriately allocated on the basis of each division's sales in relation to Pale’s aggregate sales. Pale’s Delta division accounted for 40% of Pale's total sales in 2014. For the year ended December 31, 2014, Delta had sales of $5,000,000 and traceable costs of $3,600,000. In 2014, Pale incurred operating costs of $350,000 that were not directly traceable to any of the divisions. In addition, Pale incurred interest expense of $360,000 in 2014. In reporting supplementary segment information, how much should be shown as Delta's operating profit for 2014?
23.  Letterman and Conan are partners who share profits and losses 3:7. The capital accounts on January 1, 2014, are $120,000 and $160,000, respectively. Leno is to be admitted as a partner with a one-fourth interest in the capital and profits and losses by investing $80,000. Goodwill is not notto be recorded. The capital balances after admission should be:
24.  The partnership agreement of Powell, Gaunt, and Holl allows Gaunt a bonus of 10% of income after the bonus, salaries of $30,000 per partner and interest of 6% on average capital balances of $120,000, $150,000, and $180,000 for Powell, Gaunt, and Holl, respectively. The amount of Gaunt’s bonus, assuming income before bonus, salaries, and interest of $315,000, is
25.  Mack and Ruben are partners operating an electronics repair shop. For 2014, net income, after salaries expense of $150,000 was $50,000. Mack and Ruben have salary allowances of $90,000 and $60,000, respectively, and remaining profits and losses are shared 6:4.
The division of salaries and profits in total to Mack and Ruben would be:
26.  Shrek, Donkey, and Muffin are partners with capital balances of $135,000, $90,000, and $60,000, respectively. The partners share profits and losses equally. For an investment of $120,000 cash, Fiona is to be admitted as a partner with a one-fourth interest in capital and profits. Based on this information, the amount of Fiona’s investment can best be justified by which of the following?
27.  An advance cash distribution plan is prepared
28.  The summarized balances of the accounts of MNO partnership on December 31, 2014, are as follows:
29.  The ABC partnership has the following capital accounts on its books at December 31, 2014:
30.  X, Y, and Z have capital balances of $90,000, $60,000, and $30,000, respectively. Profits are allocated 35% to X, 35% to Y, and 30% to Z. The partners have decided to dissolve and liquidate the partnership. After paying all creditors, the amount available for distribution is $60,000. X, Y, and Z are all personally solvent. Under the circumstances, Z will



 
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ACC 307 Final Exam Part 2-New

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1.    An employer calculates the amount of income tax withheld from salary or wages based on the information an employee provides on the following form:
2.     
Black Company paid wages of $180,000, of which $40,000 was qualified wages for the work opportunity tax credit under the general rules. Black Company’s deduction for wages for the year is:
3.     
Several years ago, Tom purchased a structure for $300,000 that was originally placed in service in 1929. Three and one-half years ago he incurred qualifying rehabilitation expenditures of $600,000. In the current year, Tom sold the property in a taxable transaction. Calculate the amount of the recapture of the tax credit for rehabilitation expenditures.
4.     
In terms of the withholding procedures, which statement does not reflect current rules?
5.     
The ceiling amount and percentage for 2013 for the Medicare portion of the self-employment tax are:
6.     
If the taxpayer qualifies under § 1033 (nonrecognition of gain from an involuntary conversion), makes the appropriate election, and the amount reinvested in replacement property is less than the amount realized, realized gain is:
7.     
Mary sells her personal use automobile for $20,000. She purchased the car two years ago for $17,000. What is Mary’s recognized gain or loss? It increased in value due to its excellent mileage, yet safe design.
8.     
Neal and his wife Faye reside in Texas, a community property state. Their community property consists of real estate (adjusted basis of $800,000; fair market value of $6 million) and personal property (adjusted basis of $390,000; fair market value of $295,000). Neal dies first and leaves his estate to Faye. What is Faye’s basis in the property after Neal’s death?
9.     
Which of the following exchanges qualifies for nonrecognition treatment as a § 1031 like-kind exchange?
10.   
Lynn purchases a house for $52,000. She converts the property to rental property when the fair market value is $115,000. After deducting depreciation (cost recovery) expense of $1,130, she sells the house for $120,000. What is her recognized gain or loss?
11.   
Hiram is a computer engineer and, while unemployed, invents a switching device for computer networks. He patents the device, but does not reduce it to practice. Hiram has a zero tax basis for the patent. In consideration of $800,000 plus a $1 royalty per device sold, Hiram assigns the patent to a computer manufacturing company. Hiram assigned all substantial rights in the patent. Which of the following is correct?
12.   
Lynne owns depreciable residential rental real estate which has accumulated depreciation (all from straight-line) of $65,000. If Lynne sold the property, she would have a $53,000 gain. The initial characterization of the gain would be:
13.   
Which of the following creates potential § 1245 depreciation recapture and potential § 1231 gain?
14.   
A business taxpayer sells inventory for $80,000. The adjusted basis of the property is $58,000 at the time of the sale and the inventory had been held more than one year. The taxpayer has:
15.   
Section 1239 (relating to the sale of certain property between related taxpayers) does not apply unless the property:






 
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